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By: Neil E. Cotter |
Probability |
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Chebyshev's theorem |
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Example 1 |
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Ex: Are the bounds given by Chebyshev's inequality more accurate when f(x) is a uniform distribution or when f(x) is a gaussian distribution? Justify your answer.
Sol'n: Chebyshev's
inequality is more helpful when a distribution has long tails. The probability
density for a uniform distribution drops to zero for x more than a certain number of σ's from the mean, μ. For a uniform distribution from 0 to 1, for example, σ2 = 1/12, and σ = 1/. The probability density
drops to zero for values farther than 1/2 from μ
= 1/2. Solving cs
= 1/2, we find that c =
. Thus, for a uniform
distribution, we have
for c ≥
.
In this case, Chebyshev's inequality only guarantees a probability of
=
for c =
.
Thus, Chebyshev's inequality is of little use for a uniform density function.
If we consider a standard gaussian (with μ = 0 and σ
= 1), the probability never drops to zero as we move away from the mean. If,
for example, we consider c = , we can use a table for the
area under a standard gaussian to find P(X ≤ m + cs) = P(X ≤
)
≈ P(X ≤ 1.73) = 0.9582. We subtract from this P(X ≤ m − cs) = 0.0418 to obtain
for c =
.
In this case, Chebyshev's inequality guarantees a probability of
=
= 0.6667 for c =
.
This is better than the approximation for the uniform density function, although it still seems rather conservative.